Puzzlement


καὶ
and

περὶ
for

ἁμαρτίας  ,
sin

This morning our Second Reading is Romans 8:1-11, which the caption heads “Life in the Spirit.” Like all of Paul’s letter to the Romans, this section is -- chock full is the only way to put it -- of theology, theological implications. I am looking at a phrase in 8:3, lined out above, that reads καὶ περὶ ἁμαρτίας, literally “and for sin” that is rendered differently for us in various English translations. The NRSV that we shall hear in worship this morning has it “and to deal with sin,” which is ambiguous but offers the alternate “and as a sin offering,” which is not ambiguous. The KJV, in my experience the best for literal word for word translation of the TR Greek that it uses, says “and for sin.” The Orthodox Jewish Bible has it "and as a chattat (sin offering, sin atoning sacrifice)." Looking at four Greek versions which sometimes vary, I saw no textual variant, they are all the same, καὶ περὶ ἁμαρτίας. The Good News Bible reads “as a sacrifice for our sins” and The Voice “as a sin offering.” Anyone who wants to do their own search might begin online with Bible Gateway. Why am I doing this? 

Why am I doing this? It may be a zonker for others, but I'm trying to help myself understand what Paul meant, his soteriology, which is to say his theology of salvation, how salvation is affected by Jesus Christ. And especially to help myself discern whether the Church and Christianity are faithful to Paul or have enhanced what Paul believed and intended to convey in his letter. And also whether a translation is reading later theology back into Paul’s words. But setting myself up as the judge, I find that Christianity and the Church have it right by Paul. We believe (Nicene Creed) “For us and for our salvation he came down from heaven” and “For our sake he was crucified under Pontius Pilate.” Both Paul and the Church believe that “Christ came for this,” was sent specifically for this, to be sacrificed for the sins of the world. I'm not going there this morning, but to the extent that is true, it seems to absolve all those, including Pontius Pilate and even Judas Iscariot, of their role as instruments of God, eh? But what about Jesus' words "better he had not been born" -- ? Another time, eh?

My mind is still not clear though. Sometimes there seems to be a difference in Paul and Jesus of Nazareth, the Man who did it, versus Paul the man who wrote about it. We know Paul’s view, which the OJB above, and the NRSV alternate reflect. But what was Jesus’ view of why He came? Or, since Jesus didn’t write it down for us, what was Mark’s understanding of Jesus’ view? Looking at the Words of Institution at the Last Supper (Mark 14:22-25), those four Greek texts vary a little, perhaps not significantly, I don't have time to check it out at the moment. Not to mention the Jesus Seminar and The Five Gospels: What Did Jesus Really Say? And what do I believe? 

And this word “salvation,” what does it mean -- what did it mean to Paul? How does the Church understand salvation, and has that changed over the Christian centuries? And how do I understand it?

 Bearing in mind that "just because I say it, that don't make it so."

TW+